from where did the runs come?
posted by Ragib
- March 15 2011 11:34:49 AM
in a cricket match,a bowler bowled 10 overs with 8 maidens conceding 45 runs.no batsman ever scored any boundary-neither 4 nor 6 during his bowling.he never bowled more than 6 balls an over.in each over gave away at least 2 dot balls.how could he concede 45 runs then?
Reply by budunk
- March 16 2011 10:05:34 AM
I have no idea how cricket is played, but I looked up the rules online. I saw something about byes and leg byes not counting toward maiden innings. I also read that you can get dismissed without the ball being bowled, "timed out." Therefore, in the 2 innings that are not maidens, you could technically have scored 3 runs per bowl (36 runs) plus 9 leg byes/byes in the other innings. Maybe I'm way off, but I have no clue about cricket.
Reply by Ragib
- March 16 2011 10:10:06 AM
okay.you are a little off.but your concept is right.mostly people don't know that bies and leg bies are not included in bowlers account.that's what the riddle is about.so,seeing rules of cricket is not a fair policy.but thanks for your try.
Reply by Ragib
- March 16 2011 10:12:02 AM
again,as it's world cup season,i thought that i didn't need to mention that it was a one day match.so,a bowler can't bowl more than 10 overs.
Reply by budunk
- March 16 2011 10:16:18 AM
Sorry, I have never played, watched, or followed cricket, and neither have 99% of the people around me. I had to look at the rules to even understand what in the world you were talking about. It's not a very popular sport.
Reply by budunk
- March 16 2011 10:16:57 AM
So, is there a different answer or was I pretty much on the right track?
Reply by Ragib
- March 16 2011 09:06:38 PM
what's your country,man?its very popular in indian subcontinent,africa,england and australia.the answer is-if every over has four or five leg bies or bies,it's easy to score 45.lots of answers,dude.
Reply by budunk
- March 17 2011 10:20:56 AM
Ok, so I was right. I'm from the US.
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